This is the question I'm left sitting with while I drink my tea and avoid working.

Spending some of my time around GWC's campus lets me sit in on some pretty interesting conversations. Today I got to listen to two students arguing about artificial insemination.

One of them was arguing it was a no go (we'll call him NoGo), the other was incensed that he would even think to suggest such a thing (we'll call him YesPlease). Like typical students, they often got sucked down a rabbit hole by the rhetorical attraction of some side-issue. And eventually, they ended up going in circles.

After some time, it became clear to me that the essential disagreement between them was the link between the semen-egg fusion and the sex act.

• NoGo said that the semen produced in a husband-wife sex-act was a holy product of that sex act.
  Thus, if given to another couple, it would constitute sharing their sex-act with another - which we would call adultery.
  • The closest NoGo came to establishing a link is by suggesting that God's declaration that a husband and wife shall be one flesh is linked to his command that they should procreate

• YesPlease said that he could find no biblical justification for linking the two. Thus,  haring the semen after a sex-act would be the same as sharing the sweat from the bodies of the two people involved - kinda gross, but we wouldn't call it adultery.
  • YesPlease maintained that the burden of proof falls on NoGo and so he didn't put forward an argument about why there could be no link between the two.

Is there a sustainable link between a sex-act and the semen produced by and through that sex-act?

Now obviously this is a complex issue, so please don't go down any of a number of rabbit holes.